I need legal advice on a I have a work related question?
I have a contract with the Co. I work with which states the following:
';Vacation pay: You are eligible for aone week vacation each year for the first two years. On the two year anniversary date you are entitled to a two-week vacation a year and for every year after. You can accrue up to a 3 week vacation period but it can be taken all at once';
i have worked at my company since June 21st 2005 and I have used up 1 week's worth of vacation, then in Oct 2007 I went of full commision which means im no longer accruing any more paid vacation. My boss says i only have 3 more days which is what i can have off or cash in on is this true?I need legal advice a work related question?
The first vacay was from June 2005-June 2006. You're owed a vacay from June 2006-June 2007. That's one week.
Then, you accrued vacay from June 2007-October 2007, which is about 4 months, or 1/3 of a year. After June 2007 you were eligible for up to 2 weeks vacay, so it would appear you were eligible for a total of 3 weeks.I need legal advice a work related question?
Actually....It doesnt sound right to me. If I am understanding you correctly :
june 21 2005---june 21 2006 you were alloted one week vacation and you did so.
june 22 2006- june 21 2007 you were alloted one week vacation and you DID NOT use any time.
June 22 2007- June 21 2008 you would of earned 2 weeks vacation?? And still did not use any allowed time.
~~if thats correct then it sounds more like 10 days would be owed you.
I am assuming tho that the first june to june you worked there that you would of actually been qualified to earn that time.
yes
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Hope this helps!
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